For each task related to astronomy, identify the other scientific discipline which will be most useful. Select

l 2. For each task related to astronomy, identify the other scientific discipline which will be most useful. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Assessing the impact of a meteor on an ecosystem Choose One Chemistry Mathematics Biology Determining which elements are in a meteorite Choose One Chemistry Mathematics Biology Using spectral lines to determine a star’s composition Choose One Chemistry Mathematics Biology Determining the distance to nearby stars using parallax Choose One Chemistry Mathematics Biology Testing a prediction of the theory of relativity Choose One Chemistry Mathematics Biology 3. Match the property of the object with the unit of measure. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Potential difference across a nerve synapse Choose One Micrometers Watts Ohms Joules Liters Millivolts Work done pushing a refrigerator across a room Choose One Micrometers Watts Ohms Joules Liters Millivolts Volume of air that can be inhaled in a single breath Choose One Micrometers Watts Ohms Joules Liters Millivolts Diameter of lung alveoli Choose One Micrometers Watts Ohms Joules Liters Millivolts Resistance to an electrical current Choose One Micrometers Watts Ohms Joules Liters Millivolts 4. What is the mechanical advantage of a lever? Select one. A. A lever can have low energy input at one end of the lever and high energy output at the opposite end of the lever. B. A small input force applied to one end of a lever produces a larger output force at the opposite end of the lever. C. A lever can use a small force over a small distance to produce a larger force over a large distance at the opposite end of the lever. D. The pivot point can be placed at any location and still allow exertion of the same input force to get the same output force at the opposite end of the lever. 5. Match the area of scientific study with its appropriate branch of natural science. The study of stars and planets: Astrology The study of the interactions between compounds and molecules: Chemistry The study of living organisms: Biology The study of geology, meteorology, and oceanography: Earth Sciences The study of electricity and electrical circuits: Physics The study of forces, energy, heat, sound, light, and subatomic energies: Physics 6. Which two statements illustrate the impact of a natural science discovery on another discipline? Choose 2 answers A. Advancements in fossil dating methods have provided important evidence for physicists studying the big bang theory. B. The understanding of ecosystems and biological diversity has aided the passage of conservation legislation. C. The study of extraterrestrial life sources has improved the development of antibiotics. D. A better understanding of the physical properties of sound has allowed for developments in liquid crystal displays. E. The understanding of sound vibrations in a flexible membrane has led to improvements in musical drumming. 7. Why must an Earth Scientist understand chemistry? Choose 2 answers A. Chemical reactions explain seismic activity. B. Chemical reactions by aquatic life produce the majority of salt in the oceans. C. Chemical reactions cause weathering of rocks, minerals, and mountain ranges. D. Chemical processes in the core reflect processes occurring in the oceans. E. Chemical processes occur during the formation of sedimentary rocks. 8. Which statement is a requirement of scientific inquiry? Select one. A. Hypotheses must be original, and results must be falsifiable. B. Hypotheses must be conclusive, and results must be original. C. Hypotheses must be falsifiable, and results must be repeatable. D. Hypotheses must be philosophical, and results must be inventive. 9. What makes a systems approach valid for scientific study? Select one. A. It takes into account a detailed inventory of every part of a system, eliminating the need for theories. B. It enables scientists to take into account the various parts of a system when making predictions about system behavior. C. It includes mathematical models and inventories of a system, focusing on each part individually. D. It is based on actual observation of systems rather than computer models. 10. What is the difference between a law and a theory? Select one. A. A law predicts how something will happen, and a theory explains why something will happen. B. A theory is widely accepted by the scientific community, while a law may be disputed. C. A law explains why something will happen, and a theory predicts how something will happen. D. A law is widely accepted by the scientific community, while a theory may be disputed. 11. Aristotle believed that heavier objects fall faster than lighter ones based on his observations. How did new modes of thinking change this hypothesis? Select one. A. Aristotle later revised this theory after observing material from a landslide. B. Galileo experimented with differently sized objects of the same material, noting that they all fall at the same rate. C. Copernicus made calculations about various objects’ positions relative to the Earth’s surface. D. Newton discovered the acceleration of gravity applied to all objects, regardless of weight. 12. How does the big bang theory serve as a unifying theme in cosmology? Select one. A. It explains a wide variety of physical processes, including thermonuclear fusion and gravitational contraction of stars. B. It accounts for the beginnings of both time and space in the universe. C. It serves as a unification of Newtonian and quantum physics, allowing accurate descriptions of space and time. D. It unifies the theories of relativity, energy-mass equivalence, and gravitation. 13. Which action produces a decrease in both the electrical force and the gravitational force between two charged objects? Choose 2 answers A. Decreasing the electrical charge and the mass of both objects B. Decreasing the distance between the objects C. Increasing the electrical charge and the mass of both objects D. Increasing the distance between the objects E. Increasing the speed of the objects 14. Which statement describes the primary thermonuclear reaction that occurs within the Sun? Select one. A. A certain mass of hydrogen atoms is fused together within the Sun every second to become a lesser mass of helium atoms, and the missing mass is released as radiant energy. B. A certain mass of helium atoms is fused together within the Sun every second to become an equivalent mass of carbon atoms, releasing radiant energy in the process. C. A certain mass of iron atoms is separated within the Sun every second to become an equal mass of carbon and helium atoms, releasing radiant energy in the process. D. A certain mass of iron atoms is fused together within the Sun every second to become a greater mass of hydrogen atoms, and the extra mass is then released as radiant energy. E. A certain mass of helium atoms is separated within the Sun every second to produce a greater mass of hydrogen atoms, and the increase in mass causes radiant energy to be released. 15. Which two phenomena are the result of gravity between the Moon and the Earth? Choose 2 answers A. Full moon at lunar eclipse B. One side of the Moon always facing Earth C. Phases of the Moon D. Escape speed of the Earth E. Earth pulling the Moon toward it 16. Why did the discovery of cosmic background radiation with a wavelength of 7.35 cm help to support the big bang theory of the universe? Choose 2 answers A. The radiation is coming from the edge of the universe and is highly blue-shifted. B. The wavelength matches the predicted value for the current temperature of the universe. C. The radiation is coming from all directions with no specific source. D. The wavelength matches the predicted value for the estimated mass of the universe. E. The radiation is coming from the center of the universe and is expanding outward. F. The wavelength matches the predicted value for the number of galaxies in the universe. 17. Match the description of the star with its life cycle stage. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Burns helium as its primary fuel Choose One Protostar Main-sequence star White dwarf Red giant Burns hydrogen as its primary fuel Choose One Protostar Main-sequence star White dwarf Red giant Begins to have carbon build-up in the core Choose One Protostar Main-sequence star White dwarf Red giant Is near its final stage of evolution Choose One Protostar Main-sequence star White dwarf Red giant Is no longer undergoing fusion Choose One Protostar Main-sequence star White dwarf Red giant 18. Which type of star will the Sun become? Select one. A. Black hole B. Red giant C. Supernova D. Blue supergiant 19. Which statement describes the process of thermonuclear fusion in a helium-burning star? Select one. A. Three helium nuclei are combined to form a carbon nucleus, releasing light energy. B. Two helium nuclei are separated to form four hydrogen nuclei, releasing light energy. C. Two helium nuclei are combined to form one hydrogen nucleus, releasing light energy. D. Two helium nuclei are burned in the presence of oxygen to produce four hydrogen nuclei, releasing carbon dioxide and light energy. E. Three helium nuclei are burned in the presence of oxygen, releasing carbon dioxide and light energy 20. Match each type of electromagnetic wave with its description. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Infrared Choose One Frequency lower than that of visible light Frequency within visible light spectrum Frequency higher than that of visible light Ultraviolet Choose One Frequency lower than that of visible light Frequency within visible light spectrum Frequency higher than that of visible light X-rays Choose One Frequency lower than that of visible light Frequency within visible light spectrum Frequency higher than that of visible light Radio waves Choose One Frequency lower than that of visible light Frequency within visible light spectrum Frequency higher than that of visible light Microwaves Choose One Frequency lower than that of visible light Frequency within visible light spectrum Frequency higher than that of visible light Gamma rays Choose One Frequency lower than that of visible light Frequency within visible light spectrum Frequency higher than that of visible light 21. At what speed do all electromagnetic waves propagate in a vacuum? Select one. A. At the speed of sound, 343 m/s B. At their wavelength C. At the speed of light, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s D. At their frequency 22. How does light act as a wave? Choose 2 answers A. It exhibits a double-slit interference pattern. B. It interferes with itself, resulting in a diffraction pattern. C. It interacts with electrons on a metal sheet and transfers its energy to the electrons, ejecting those electrons from the sheet. D. It collides with electrons in outer space, transferring its energy to the electrons and causing them to become photons. E. It hits air particles, causing the air to vibrate at the frequency of the light. 23. Which sequences contain the correct arrangement of objects, increasing in distance from the Sun? Choose 2 answers A. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Saturn, Neptune B. Mars, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus, asteroid belt C. Venus, Mars, Asteroid belt, Saturn, Uranus D. Venus, Asteroid belt, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus E. Mercury, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, asteroid belt 24. Match each description with the corresponding object in the solar system. Select your answer from the pull down list. Is the most massive planet Choose One Jupiter Pluto Uranus Saturn Has rotation axis that is tilted 98 degrees to the perpendicular of its orbital plane Choose One Jupiter Pluto Uranus Saturn Is composed primarily of rock and nitrogen ice Choose One Jupiter Pluto Uranus Saturn Has a very strong magnetic field that produces the highest radiation levels ever measured in the solar system Choose One Jupiter Pluto Uranus Saturn Has the lowest density of any planet Choose One Jupiter Pluto Uranus Saturn 25. Match the aspect of the universe with the tool that would be most appropriate for its observation. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Quasar Choose One Radio telescope Optical telescope Unaided eye Rayleigh detector Meteor shower Choose One Radio telescope Optical telescope Unaided eye Rayleigh detector Constellation Choose One Radio telescope Optical telescope Unaided eye Rayleigh detector Pulsar Choose One Radio telescope Optical telescope Unaided eye Rayleigh detector Rilles on the moon’s surface Choose One Radio telescope Optical telescope Unaided eye Rayleigh detector 26. Match the electromagnetic wave with its most practical use. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Ultraviolet Choose One Useful in cooking and heating food Used to transmit AM and FM radio stations Used to produce electricity from wind power Used to identify broken bones Useful in killing bacteria and sanitizing instruments Used in medicine for cancer treatment Gamma rays Choose One Useful in cooking and heating food Used to transmit AM and FM radio stations Used to produce electricity from wind power Used to identify broken bones Useful in killing bacteria and sanitizing instruments Used in medicine for cancer treatment X-rays Choose One Useful in cooking and heating food Used to transmit AM and FM radio stations Used to produce electricity from wind power Used to identify broken bones Useful in killing bacteria and sanitizing instruments Used in medicine for cancer treatment Microwaves Choose One Useful in cooking and heating food Used to transmit AM and FM radio stations Used to produce electricity from wind power Used to identify broken bones Useful in killing bacteria and sanitizing instruments Used in medicine for cancer treatment Radio waves Choose One Useful in cooking and heating food Used to transmit AM and FM radio stations Used to produce electricity from wind power Used to identify broken bones Useful in killing bacteria and sanitizing instruments Used in medicine for cancer treatment 27. Which three statements describe metamorphic rocks? Choose 3 answers A. Metamorphic rocks can be porphyritic. B. Metamorphic rocks are recrystallized. C. Metamorphic rocks are crystallized from a melt. D. Metamorphic rocks can be foliated. E. Metamorphic rocks contain minerals from igneous or sedimentary rocks 28. Match each mineral or rock with its corresponding property. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Large interlocking crystals of calcite Choose One Marble Granite Silicate Diamond Four oxygen atoms joined to one silicon atom in a tetrahedron Choose One Marble Granite Silicate Diamond Carbon arranged in a crystal lattice Choose One Marble Granite Silicate Diamond Coarse-grained and plutonic Choose One Marble Granite Silicate Diamond Nonfoliated and metamorphic Choose One Marble Granite Silicate Diamond 29. Classify each statement as describing either magnetism or electricity. Select your answer from the pull-down list. It forms concentric rings around a current-carrying wire. Choose One Electricity Magnetism It is a flow of charged particles. Choose One Electricity Magnetism It deflects moving charged particles. Choose One Electricity Magnetism It occurs when there is a difference in electric potential. Choose One Electricity Magnetism It is induced by the flow of charged particles in the Earth’s liquid outer core. Choose One Electricity Magnetism 30. How is table salt (sodium chloride) bonded together? Choose 2 answers A. Chlorine and sodium fill their outermost energy shells by donating or gaining electrons. B. Electrons in salt are transferred to form cations and anions. C. Salt forms when hydrogen bonds hold the chlorine and sodium atoms together. D. Elements on the same side of the periodic table bond together to form salt. E. A covalent bond forms between chlorine and sodium, forming salt. 31. How do water molecules react to freezing? Choose 3 answers A. They move slightly away from each other. B. They decrease in translational energy. C. They move more chaotically. D. They collide more frequently with each other. E. They move into a more orderly arrangement 32. Match each characteristic with the corresponding layer of the Earth. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Contains iron-rich silicate rock Choose One Crust Core Mantle Contains the highest concentration of silica Choose One Crust Core Mantle Cannot be penetrated by S-waves Choose One Crust Core Mantle Composed primarily of nickel and iron Choose One Crust Core Mantle Contains the Mohorovicic discontinuity Choose One Crust Core Mantle 33. Which three describe the effects of the Earth’s Hadley cells? Choose 3 answers A. The trade winds B. The ozone hole C. Regions of high rainfall in the tropics D. Clear skies in the subtropical desert E. The polar deserts F. Lake-effect snowfall 34. How is tectonic movement producing the Himalayan mountain range? Choose 2 answers A. A lithospheric plate is colliding with another lithospheric plate of similar buoyancy, causing upward motion. B. An oceanic plate is sliding underneath a continental plate, causing pools of magma to rise to the surface. C. A continental plate is colliding with another continental plate, causing upward motion. D. A continental plate is colliding with an island arc, causing upward motion. E. A continental plate is sliding past an oceanic plate, causing upward motion. F. A continental plate is colliding with an oceanic plate, causing upward motion. 35. Match each description with the corresponding energy type. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Driving in a straight line at a constant speed Choose One Gravitational potential energy Kinetic energy Chemical potential energy Energy increased as an object is raised to a greater height Choose One Gravitational potential energy Kinetic energy Chemical potential energy Random molecular motion Choose One Gravitational potential energy Kinetic energy Chemical potential energy Energy stored in glucose Choose One Gravitational potential energy Kinetic energy Chemical potential energy Propagation of sound Choose One Gravitational potential energy Kinetic energy Chemical potential energy 36. What is the law of conservation of energy? Energy cannot be created or destroyed. 37. How is energy transferred by radio waves? Select one. A. Radio waves cause microscopic vibrations of the receiving antenna which are converted to sound by the speakers. B. Vibrating electric and magnetic fields force electrons in the receiving antenna to vibrate at the same frequency. C. Free electrons in the air are carried by radio waves until they are received by an antenna. D. Electrons emitted by the transmitting station are picked up by the radio receiver where they are converted to sound. 38. Classify each term as a property of light waves, sound waves, or both. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Can reflect from rough surfaces Choose One Sound waves Both light waves and sound waves Light waves Vibrations of electromagnetic fields Choose One Sound waves Both light waves and sound waves Light waves Exhibits refraction Choose One Sound waves Both light waves and sound waves Light waves Vibrations of a material medium Choose One Sound waves Both light waves and sound waves Light waves Results from accelerating electrons Choose One Sound waves Both light waves and sound waves Light waves 39. Which two illustrate Newton’s third law of motion? Choose 2 answers A. Tires of a car apply force to the road, but the road does not apply a force to the tires. B. A cannon recoils after shooting a cannonball. C. A pool ball accelerates after being hit with the pool stick. D. The Earth orbits the Sun in an elliptical path. E. A rocket expels exhaust gases with the same force with which the gases propel the rocket. 40. Which two statements describe the role of solar energy? Choose 2 answers A. Solar energy heating the lithosphere increases the pressure in magma chambers until they erupt volcanically. B. Using solar energy, plants convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen through photosynthesis. C. Solar energy warms air at the equator which rises and spreads towards the poles, circulating in large convection currents. D. Minerals excited by solar energy replace boney tissues when dead organisms are buried by sediments. E. Solar energy heats the air over the mountains, and the increased local surface pressure causes local wind patterns. 41. What effect does acid rain have on a marble building? Select one. A. Contracts the marble B. Dissolves the marble C. Burns the marble D. Freezes the marble 42. How do glaciers affect the Earth’s surface? Choose 2 answers A. They transport sediment and deposit it as moraines. B. They cause semi-permanent land subsidence by depriving an area of groundwater. C. They transform V-shaped valleys into rounded U-shaped valleys. D. They increase land subsidence as aquifers are recharged. E. They enhance soil creep on steep slopes. 43. Which two gases are most abundant in the Earth’s atmosphere? Choose 2 answers A. Carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen C. Oxygen D. Water vapor E. Argon 44. Upon the passeage of a cold front, which changes in atmospheric conditions does an observer on the ground experience? Choose 2 answers A. Air temperature increases and then decreases after passage of the front. B. Cloudiness decreases and then increases after passage of the front. C. Surface pressure increases and then decreases after passage of the front. D. Humidity increases significantly after passage of the front. E. Air is pushed up abruptly as the front approaches and generally descends after passage of the front. 45. Match each task to the corresponding specific application of radioactive atoms. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Provide radiation cancer therapy Choose One Radiometric dating Radioactive treatment Radioactive tracer Diagnose diseases Choose One Radiometric dating Radioactive treatment Radioactive tracer Determine fertilizer absorption in plants Choose One Radiometric dating Radioactive treatment Radioactive tracer Locate leaks in faulty pipe system Choose One Radiometric dating Radioactive treatment Radioactive tracer Study engine wear in automobiles Choose One Radiometric dating Radioactive treatment Radioactive tracer 46. Match the activity to the appropriate technique or tool. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Inferring the structure of the Earth’s interior Choose One Satellite remote sensing Hygrometer Seismometers Assessing flood damage Choose One Satellite remote sensing Hygrometer Seismometers Mapping the Earth’s surface Choose One Satellite remote sensing Hygrometer Seismometers Measuring earthquake magnitude Choose One Satellite remote sensing Hygrometer Seismometers Assisting search and rescue operations Choose One Satellite remote sensing Hygrometer Seismometers 47. Which example describes a relationship between abiotic and biotic components of a forest ecosystem? Select one. A. A mountain lion extracting energy from a rabbit it has eaten B. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria living on a plant’s roots C. Precipitation causing the weathering of rocks D. Solar energy enabling plants to create organic molecules 48. How does nitrogen move between the abiotic and biotic components of an environment? Choose 3 answers A. Animals receive nitrates from the soil by ingesting plants. B. Denitrifying bacteria return nitrogen to the atmosphere. C. Plants convert organic nitrogen to soil nitrate. D. Detritivores convert dead organic matter into ammonium. E. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert nitrates to nitrogen gas 49. What is the effect of seasonal temperature variation on an organism living in a temperate forest? Select one. A. An insect becomes active only during the monsoon season. B. A mammal has shorter fur in the winter. C. A deciduous tree sheds its leaves in the fall. D. A bacterium produces long-lived spores to survive the dry season. 50. A scientist grows a population of Staphylococcus bacteria on a sterile laboratory plate which changes color after the bacteria reproduce. A plate typically changes color after 12 hours. The scientist performs this experiment on a plate coated with an antibiotic. The antibiotic-coated plate changes color after four days. Which statement is a plausible explanation for the slow bacterial growth in this experiment? Select one. A. The antibiotic initially shocked the bacteria into a brief period of hibernation. B. One or more bacteria had a resistance to the effects of the antibiotic. C. The antibiotic removed nutrients from the culture. D. It took time for the bacteria to acclimatize to the antibiotic-altered conditions. 51. A population of rabbits is exposed to a lethal virus. Naturally immune rabbits survive infection by the virus and continue to breed while non-immune rabbits die off. How does this scenario support the theory of evolution? Choose 2 answers A. The scenario describes the direction of genetic drift. B. The scenario describes the process of natural selection. C. The scenario describes fitness of members of a population. D. The scenario describes the effect of endosymbiosis. E. The scenario describes how species demographics are static. 52. Which two are examples of parasitic relationships? Choose 2 answers A. A cleaner shrimp on a moray eel B. Fleas living on a dog C. Tapeworms in people D. An adult cat nursing her kitten E. A rose growing in a garden 53. Match each organism with the effect its removal from a forest would have on the energy levels of the ecosystem. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Grass Choose One No drop to the first or second trophic levels Energy input to the first trophic level drops dramatically Reduction of energy into the third trophic level Fox Choose One No drop to the first or second trophic levels Energy input to the first trophic level drops dramatically Reduction of energy into the third trophic level Rabbit Choose One No drop to the first or second trophic levels Energy input to the first trophic level drops dramatically Reduction of energy into the third trophic level Trees Choose One No drop to the first or second trophic levels Energy input to the first trophic level drops dramatically Reduction of energy into the third trophic level Owl Choose One No drop to the first or second trophic levels Energy input to the first trophic level drops dramatically Reduction of energy into the third trophic level 54. Where does the majority of the energy go that a cow receives from eating grass? Select one. A. Photosynthesis, growth and reproduction, and primary productivity B. Maintenance and photosynthesis C. Primary producers, maintenance, and secondary productivity D. Feces and primary productivity E. Growth and reproduction, maintenance, and feces 55. Which resource defines a filter-feeding whale’s niche? Select one. A. Kelp forests B. Plankton C. Schools of tuna D. Penguins 56. Classify each eukaryote with its corresponding kingdom. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Sponges, multicellular heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by ingestion Choose One Protists Fungi Animals Plants Yeast, single-celled heterotroph used in baking Choose One Protists Fungi Animals Plants Spiders, multicellular heterotrophs with an exoskeleton Choose One Protists Fungi Animals Plants Giardia, a single-celled heterotroph that causes severe gastric distress in its host Choose One Protists Fungi Animals Plants Mosses, multicellular terrestrial photosynthetic autotrophs Choose One Protists Fungi Animals Plants 57. Classify each statement as corresponding to either Linnaean classification or cladistic taxonomy. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Birds belong to the class Aves, and crocodiles belong to the class Reptilia. Choose One Linnaean classification Cladistic taxonomy The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens. Choose One Linnaean classification Cladistic taxonomy Whales are more evolutionarily related to bears than fish. Choose One Linnaean classification Cladistic taxonomy Humans are more evolutionarily related to button mushrooms than to celery. Choose One Linnaean classification Cladistic taxonomy Birds and crocodiles share a common ancestor. Choose One Linnaean classification Cladistic taxonomy 58. Classify each survival-enabling trait according to the group of organisms it describes. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Xylem and phloem transport nutrients Choose One Mammals Fishes Plants Fungi Birds Are autotrophs Choose One Mammals Fishes Plants Fungi Birds Some possess cartilaginous skeletons Choose One Mammals Fishes Plants Fungi Birds Form symbiotic relationships with plant roots Choose One Mammals Fishes Plants Fungi Birds Have hollow bones and are endothermic Choose One Mammals Fishes Plants Fungi Birds Endothermic and give birth to live young Choose One Mammals Fishes Plants Fungi Birds 59. Why does primary succession take longer to reach a climax community than secondary succession? Select one. A. Too many nutrients and too much organic matter are present in the system in a primary succession environment. B. Dominant species prevent the colonization by subsequent species during primary succession. C. Life must evolve spontaneously during primary succession. D. Soil is not immediately available in a primary succession environment and must accumulate over time. 60. Why does an increase in the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere cause Earth’s average temperature to increase? Select one. A. It results in more intense ultraviolet radiation. B. It causes greater gravitational attraction resulting in higher temperatures. C. It redirects more infrared radiation back to the Earth’s surface. D. It causes greater thermal conduction at the Earth’s surface. 61. In which group do all atoms have seven valence electrons in the ground state? Select one. A. Halogens B. Noble gases C. Alkali metals D. Alkaline earths 62. Which parts of an atomic nucleus experience both repulsion due to the electrical force and attraction due to the strong nuclear force? Select one. A. Neutrons only B. Protons and neutrons C. Protons and electrons D. Protons only 63. The element carbon has three isotopes that are commonly found in nature: 12C, 13C, and 14C. Which two statements are true? Choose 2 answers A. One of these isotopes is radioactive and will eventually decay into other forms. B. Each isotope of carbon behaves in a radically different manner in chemical reactions. C. A sugar molecule containing only 13C for its carbon backbone is digested no differently from a sugar molecule containing only 12C for its carbon backbone. D. A 12C atom contains 12 valence electrons. E. The atomic masses of all three isotopes are equivalent. F. Each of these isotopes has the same number of neutrons. 64. Classify each item as either a heterogeneous mixture or a solution. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Oxygen dissolved in water Choose One Solution Heterogeneous mixture A volcanic ash cloud Choose One Solution Heterogeneous mixture Carbonated water without bubbles in a sealed, closed container Choose One Solution Heterogeneous mixture Water containing gas bubbles Choose One Solution Heterogeneous mixture Solid sugar settled at the bottom of a glass of water Choose One Solution Heterogeneous mixture 65. Match the nitrogenous base sequence with the base sequence that exists on the opposite DNA strand. Select your answer from the pull-down list. TCAATG Choose One CAGGTC GATCGA GTTCAT ACGGTC GTTACT CTAAGT TAGAGC TGGACT AGTTAC TGCCAG Choose One CAGGTC GATCGA GTTCAT ACGGTC GTTACT CTAAGT TAGAGC TGGACT AGTTAC ATCTCG Choose One CAGGTC GATCGA GTTCAT ACGGTC GTTACT CTAAGT TAGAGC TGGACT AGTTAC GTCCAG Choose One CAGGTC GATCGA GTTCAT ACGGTC GTTACT CTAAGT TAGAGC TGGACT AGTTAC ACCTGA Choose One CAGGTC GATCGA GTTCAT ACGGTC GTTACT CTAAGT TAGAGC TGGACT AGTTAC 66. Which role does energy play in the formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen? Select one. A. The energy absorbed by the atoms or molecules involved in the reaction is greater than the energy released. B. The thermal energy of the surrounding environment decreases. C. Energy is released to the environment. D. Energy is created by the reaction. E. The kinetic energy of the surrounding atoms and molecules decreases. 67. Match each structure with its cell type. Select your answer from the pull-down list. Possess a nucleus Choose One Prokaryotic cells Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells Eukaryotic cells May possess pili Choose One Prokaryotic cells Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells Eukaryotic cells Have a cell membrane Choose One Prokaryotic cells Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells Eukaryotic cells Can be unicellular or multicellular Choose One Prokaryotic cells Both prokaryotic and e

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